Am I right in assuming that the "benefit of the doubt" concept does not apply when it comes to awarding penalty tries? The referee last night said that, before a penalty try could be awarded, it needed to be certain that Carney would have got to the ball before Slater.
Well maybe it wasn't certain. It looked like he had a bloody good chance of getting to the ball, but I concede that there was doubt. (He might, for example, have had an epileptic fit at that moment or have been hit by a meteorite.)
So why should this be so? Why should that dodgy try by Wallace on Sunday be given the benefit of the doubt, but not Carney?
Well maybe it wasn't certain. It looked like he had a bloody good chance of getting to the ball, but I concede that there was doubt. (He might, for example, have had an epileptic fit at that moment or have been hit by a meteorite.)
So why should this be so? Why should that dodgy try by Wallace on Sunday be given the benefit of the doubt, but not Carney?
Comment