I was going to post this in another thread, but thought it an interesting enough quesiton to have it's own.
The following quote was made on the Burgess signing.
I'm quite interested to know if this is the case.
Say for instance this deal was undertaken in the following scenario (I do not know the details, so these numbers are for explanation only).
A young Burgess with limited first grade experience signs for a UK club say for 2008, 2009 and 2010. His package is say $450 k. He has a great season in 2008, so the club in order to keep him happy the club offers him an upgrade. The club has capacity in 2009 but not 2010. So in 2009 he receives and additional 200k representing an extra 100k for 2009 and 100k for 2010.
Now, despite his contract to 2010 Burgess wants to sign with Souths. His UK club have already paid him good money in 2009 ($150k base salary + $100k 2009 incentive, and $100k 2010 incentive) and say you can only go if we receive some money back for the transfer as we have effectively paid you part of your 2010 salary.
Hopefully you are all still with me.
Now if Souths comes along and agrees to pay a 'transfer' fee, effectively covering the costs of his advance payment for 2010, effectively his salary, should this not be covered under the salary cap for Souths?
Discuss.
The following quote was made on the Burgess signing.
Originally posted by Red.
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Say for instance this deal was undertaken in the following scenario (I do not know the details, so these numbers are for explanation only).
A young Burgess with limited first grade experience signs for a UK club say for 2008, 2009 and 2010. His package is say $450 k. He has a great season in 2008, so the club in order to keep him happy the club offers him an upgrade. The club has capacity in 2009 but not 2010. So in 2009 he receives and additional 200k representing an extra 100k for 2009 and 100k for 2010.
Now, despite his contract to 2010 Burgess wants to sign with Souths. His UK club have already paid him good money in 2009 ($150k base salary + $100k 2009 incentive, and $100k 2010 incentive) and say you can only go if we receive some money back for the transfer as we have effectively paid you part of your 2010 salary.
Hopefully you are all still with me.
Now if Souths comes along and agrees to pay a 'transfer' fee, effectively covering the costs of his advance payment for 2010, effectively his salary, should this not be covered under the salary cap for Souths?
Discuss.
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